Which Condition Is Associated With The Excessive Concern Over Underdeveloped Muscles, Consumption Of (2024)

Medicine College

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Answer 1

The condition that is associated with the excessive concern over underdeveloped muscles is called Bigorexia (muscle dysmorphia).

What is Bigorexia (muscle dysmorphia)?

Bigorexia (muscle dysmorphia) is defined as a health disorder that prompts an individual to build up their muscles.

This concern leads them to involve in the following activities such as:

consumption of steroids and supplements, and

hours devoted to weight lifting.

Therefore, the condition that is associated with the excessive concern over underdeveloped muscles is called Bigorexia (muscle dysmorphia).

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Answer 2

The condition associated with the excessive concern over underdeveloped muscles is bigorexia.

What is Bigorexia ?

The term Bigorexia refers to situation in which a person is overly concerned about the development of muscles causing the devotion of many hours to weight lifting.

This may lead a person to consumption of steroids and supplements thus preoccupying the person with the thought of being muscular.

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Related Questions

When teaching a patient with osteoarthritis (OA) of the left hip and lower lumbar vertebrae about management of the condition, the nurse determines that additional instruction is needed when the patient say

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"I should try to stay active throughout the day to keep my joints from becoming stiff

Patients with osteoarthritis should protect their joints and prevent joint stresses, therefore they should alternate rest periods with necessary activity. The other patient comments show that the instruction was successful. The most prevalent type of arthritis, osteoarthritis, affects millions of individuals worldwide. When the protective cartilage that cushions the ends of the bones gradually deteriorates, it happens. Although osteoarthritis can harm any joint, it most frequently affects the hands, knees, hips, and spine joints. The destruction of cartilage, a rubbery substance that reduces friction in your joints, is the primary cause of osteoarthritis. The spine, fingers, thumbs, hips, knees, or big toes are the most common places for it to occur, yet it can develop in any joint. Older persons are more likely to get osteoarthritis.

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Betaxolol hydrochloride eye drops have been prescribed for a client with glaucoma. Which nursing action is most appropriate related to monitoring for side and adverse effects of this medication

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Blood pressure monitoring is the most appropriate nursing action to monitor for side effects and adverse effects of this medicine when betaxolol hydrochloride eye drops are provided for a client with glaucoma.

What are Betaxolol hydrochloride eye drops?To treat elevated eye pressure brought on by open-angle glaucoma or a condition known as ocular hypertension, betaxolol eye drops may be administered alone or in combination with other medications.The drug in question is a beta-blocker.Only a prescription from your doctor is required to purchase this medication.Blood pressure monitoringThe medication's side effects and adverse reactions include hypotension, dizziness, nausea, diaphoresis, headache, lethargy, constipation, and diarrhea.Monitoring the blood pressure for hypotension and checking the pulse for strength, weakness, irregular heartbeat, and bradycardia are examples of nursing interventions.

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When the nurse gives a client and family instructions after laryngeal surgery, which does the nurse indicate should be avoided

Answers

Hand-held showers, Wearing a scarf over the stoma, Swimming, Coughing.

Stoma

A stoma is an opening on the abdomen that can be attached to either your urinary or digestive systems to allow waste (feces or urine) to be diverted out of your body. It appears as a little, round piece of flesh that is sewed to your body and is reddish in color. Wearing a pouch—which may be closed or have a bottom opening—over the top of your stoma is required. You shouldn't experience any pain because your stoma lacks nerve endings. Your need for a stoma could arise for a variety of factors. Bowel or bladder obstructions are common causes, as are bowel or bladder cancer, diverticulitis, inflammatory bowel disease, or adenovirus infections. Depending on the reason, a stoma may be transient or permanent.

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which client condition is likely to improve significantly with the use of hearing aids destruction of the auditory nerve

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The client's hearing condition is likely to improve significantly with the use of hearing aids after the auditory nerve is destroyed.

What hearing condition?

Hearing loss is a condition that reduces the human being's ability to hear sounds, also influencing the development of language and making it difficult to establish communication.

With this information, we can conclude that Hearing acuity is linked to perception and hearing ability. People who hear well, without noise, without problems, have good acuity.

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hen assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the prob

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Medical history

To better understand the patient's health and determine whether any recent complaints are related to it, you should ask the patient for a medical history. This will help you arrive at a diagnosis.

What is Medical history ?

A doctor can learn about a patient's medical history, case history, or anamnesis (from the Greek words v, aná, "open," and mnesis, "memory") by asking particular questions.

A file containing details on a person's health. In a personal medical history, details concerning ailments, operations, vaccines, and the outcomes of physical examinations and tests may be included. Information on medications taken as well as health practises like diet and exercise may also be included.

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A bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is treatment for.

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A bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is the treatment for (B) hydrocephalus.

What is hydrocephalus?A buildup of fluid in the brain's deep cavities.The additional fluid exerts pressure on the brain and can harm it. It is particularly common in infants and the elderly.In babies, hydrocephalus is characterized by head enlargement. Headache, blurred vision, cognitive impairments, lack of coordination, and incontinence are common symptoms in adults and older children.A tube (shunt) is frequently placed surgically into a ventricle to drain excess fluid.Hydrocephalus is treated by a bypass or shunt procedure that redirects the cerebrospinal fluid.

As the description itself says, hydrocephalus is treated by a bypass or shunt procedure that redirects the cerebrospinal fluid.

Therefore, a bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is the treatment for (B) hydrocephalus.

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Complete question:

A bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is the treatment for ______

A. meningitis.

B. hydrocephalus.

C. encephalitis.

D. cerebral palsy.

which intervention would the nurse use to provide emotional support for a resident in a nursing home who recently immigrated from another country

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By offering choices consistent with the client's heritage the nurse would use to provide emotional support for a resident in a nursing home who recently immigrated from another country.

When a nurse offers options that are respectful of the client's cultural values and customs, compliance with a treatment plan is improved. The nurse's cultural or personal biases and views shouldn't affect or get in the way of providing competent care.

The focus right now should be on tailoring treatment to the client's requirements and culture rather than helping them fit into American culture. Unless they are harmful to the person's health, cultural traditions shouldn't be discussed.

In order to help the parents deal with their loss, the nurse should be attentive to any cultural or religious beliefs that they may have.

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Mrs. Rainwater has been diagnosed with hypertension. This is documented in which section of the patient record

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Mrs. Rainwater has been diagnosed with hypertension. This is documented in Problem list and assessment field of the progress note.

An itemized list of a patient's health issues, such as nontransitive illnesses or diseases, wounds they have sustained, and other issues that have harmed them or are still bothering them, is known as a problem list.By highlighting the most significant health aspects of each patient, the problem list enables clinicians to deliver individualized therapy.The issue list aids in locating people affected by particular diseases. It is simpler to review medical histories in the electronic health records (EHR) system or analyze medical information and identify all individuals who share a common condition using ICD-11 coded disorders.Using the problem list, the care team can carry out quality-improvement initiatives by identifying patient populations with certain diseases, offering follow-up care, and making sure all patients receive treatment that complies with their needs.

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John, 68, is currently enrolled in a Medicare Supplement Plan with a stand-alone Prescription Drug Plan. Newly diagnosed with a chronic condition, he calls agent Charles on May 3 to ask if there are plans that will help him manage his condition. Can John enroll in a Chronic Special Needs Plan (C-SNP) that covers his chronic condition?

Answers

Yes, he can enroll using his Special Election Period.

What is Medicare Supplement Plan?

Medicare Supplement Plan is an insurance plan that helps it's beneficiary to obtain some discounts in health related services rendered to them.

The Medicare Supplement Plan is different from other Medicare plans as it gives the beneficiary an opportunity to predict their medical costs.

The beneficiary on the Medicare Supplement Plan has a right to a free period called Special Election Period which gives the beneficiary the opportunity to enroll in other plans such as Chronic Special Needs Plan (C-SNP) that covers his chronic condition.

Therefore, Mr John who is currently in a Medicare Supplement Plan can enroll in a Chronic Special Needs Plan (C-SNP) that covers his chronic condition.

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A nurse is completing a physical assessment on a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following physical manifestations may the nurse expect to find

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The nurse may expect to find the client suffering from atrophy in the muscles.

What is atrophy?Atrophy is the weakening or decrease in size of a cell, an organ or a tissue due to lack of use.Initially the atrophied part is in normal condition but due to no use for a long time, it starts degenerating.Example: Atrophy in the muscles of an arm after it has been dislocated or broken and thus is not used for a long time.According to studies, after 3 to 5 weeks of being bedridden, there is a loss of almost half of the muscle strength.As the patient is suffering from osteoarthritis (degeneration of joints) and has trouble in moving painful joints, he is expected to have atrophied muscles in that area.

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The infection control nurse observes a new graduate nurse in the intensive care unit. Which action by the graduate nurse requires intervention by the infection control nurse

Answers

The action that requires intervention by the infection control nurse is when the graduate nurse scrubs beneath artificial nails when performing hand hygiene.

What is hand hygiene?

Hand hygiene is a fundamental issue for the prevention and control of infectious diseases.

Hand hygiene needs to be practiced by the nurse in order to avoid cross-infection contamination.

In conclusion, the action that requires intervention is when the graduate nurse scrubs beneath artificial nails when performing hand hygiene.

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If you misuse drugs for whatever reason, some places where you can get help include?

Answers

Rehab or trusted adult/good influence friend

An athlete who complains of severe pain located high on the front thigh muscle probably has an injury of the

Answers

According to the research, an athlete who complains of pain located high on the front thigh muscle probably has an injury of the hip flexor.

What is the hip flexor?

They are a group of muscles located near the upper part of the thighs that allow the hip to flex, that is, to bring the thigh closer to the abdomen.

An athlete who has an injury of the hip flexor complains of tenderness in this muscle group and presents with pain on resisted hip flexion or stretching.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, an athlete who complains of pain located high on the front thigh muscle probably has an injury of the hip flexor.

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A licensed physician who suffers from an impairment that affects their ability to actively practice medicine must report this impairment to the Medical Board at the time they renew their license.

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True, A licensed physician who suffers from an impairment that affects their ability to actively practice medicine must report this impairment to the Medical Board at the time they renew their license.

After your registration expires, you have a grace period of thirty days during which you can renew it without incurring any fees. The Medical Board makes your arrest record available to the public. Each time you are arrested, you are required to notify the Board right away.

Can you practice medicine in Texas with expired license?

However, neither the Texas Medical Board regulations nor the Texas Occupation Code authorize a doctor to practice without a valid license for even a single day. And to make matters worse, every day a doctor practices medicine without a valid license is regarded as a brand-new criminal offense.

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A nurse on a psychiatric unit is planning care for an unconscious teenage client who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote. Which of the following methods for gastric emptying is appropriate

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The most appropriate gastric emptying in someone who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote is activated charcoal.

What is Activated charcoal?

This is the type of charcoal formed when it is heated in the presence of a gas thereby creating pores or spaces in its structure.

Since the substance is non corrosive and has no antidote then it is best to use activated charcoal as it helps to filter the contaminants or toxic substance thereby making it the most appropriate choice.

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The remaining part of the question is:

The nurse should recommend performing gastric lavage with which substance?

An episiotomy or a cesarean incision requires assessment. Which assessment criterion for skin integrity is not initially noted

Answers

Temperature for skin integrity is not initially noted in an episiotomy or cesarean incision requires assessment.

Episiotomy :

An episiotomy is an cut made in the perineum the tissue between the area of vagin*l opening and the anus during childbirth.

An episiotomy or perineal laceration is frequently evaluated using the term REEDA. R (Redness) stands for REEDA. E(Edema) E (Ecchymosis) D (Discharge) A (Approximation). In episiotomy and lacerations redness commonly occur, but if there is severe pain, more examinationis required. Ice packs should normally be applied during the first few days after giving birth.

The temperature of an incision would be determined only if the other parameters demands this. The skin temperature would be measured with a sterile glove.

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3 types of muscle tissue Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle Smith muscle

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Answer:

Skeletal muscle – the specialised tissue that is attached to bones and allows movement.

Smooth muscle – located in various internal structures including the digestive tract, uterus and blood vessels such as arteries.

Cardiac muscle – the muscle specific to the heart.

Review the 4 cases below. Pose the potential condition/s. Consider how a psychologist would analyze the situations. What questions would each ask? What would each be interested in observing? What type of treatment would each be likely to suggest? Choose from the treatment options listed in your book to develop treatment programs for these individuals based on their situations. Elaborate on your responses and include your reasoning for your answers.
Case #11 – Avery. A 32-year-old woman and a high-powered stock broker, Avery is frustrated by her inability to quit smoking. She has tried several times and has been successful for brief periods, but she always starts smoking again when her life becomes stressful.
Case #4 – Margo. Margo, 28, has been experiencing periods of extreme sadness which makes it difficult for her to cope with life, coupled with extreme anxiousness about literally everything. She experiences panic attacks about driving, going to certain stores, doing her banking, and various other daily life activities. These periods are followed by times where she feels she is bursting with energy and is on top of the world.
Case #1 – Edward. Edward, 53, has been having difficulty since a car accident which killed his wife and three children two years ago. He has difficulty in day-to-day activities, and has been questioning his very existence. He has stopped going to work, lost his home, and has been staying with his elderly parents, unable to return to the house that reminds him of his former life.
Case #10 – George. In his mid-thirties, George finds that he is having difficulty establishing an intimate relationship with the woman he is dating. He cares for her and would someday like to get married, but he is reluctant to make a commitment.

A. Case #: Case #11 – Avery
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):

B. Case #: Case #4 – Margo
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):

C. Case #: Case #1 – Edward.
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):

D. Case #: Case #10 – George
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):

Answers

Psychological follow-up is nothing more than seeking an emotional balance to deal with the work routine and life's obstacles.

A. Case #: Case # 11 - AveryConsiderations: compulsive smokerPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: nicotine addictionRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and nicotine treatment

B. Case nº: Case nº 4 - MargoConsiderations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: bipolarRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): anti-bipolars

C. Case #: Case #1 – Edward.Considerations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: post-traumatic depressionRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and anti-aciolytics

D. Case nº: Case nº 10 - GeorgeConsiderations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: affectivity disorderRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and anti-aciolytics.

With this information, we can conclude that During psychological counseling, what you should do is just be yourself without worrying about judgments or invasion of privacy.

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To prevent coding errors, always use both the Alphabetic Index (to identify a code) and the ______ (to verify a code).

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To prevent coding errors, always use both the Alphabetic Index (to identify a code) and the Tabular Index (to verify a code).

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember

Answers

It is important to remember the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

How is the primary assessment done?

Start your clinical evaluation of the patient as you approach. To aid in your assessment and the creation of a treatment plan, keep an eye out for important clinical markers. A crucial aspect of this assessment is identifying the mechanism of injury (MOI) or the nature of the illness (NOI).

Take into account the following instances when determining the MOI for trauma patients:

Environmental circ*mstancesVehicle damage and speedType of firearm, surface, and height of fall

Take into account the following instances when determining the NOI for medical patients:

The presence of prescription drug and alcohol bottlesData from onlookers, family, and caregivers' environmental factors

You might be able to forecast injury and disease patterns and severity using each of these factors.

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Emt training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the?

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EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

EMT route is a scientific path in which college students might take information approximately patient care and plenty of extra through numerous applications consisting of certificates, degrees, UG, and PG.

Almost, there are 60 institutes that provide this course in an expansion of a minimum of 10 courses. it is a popular direction this is affiliated with the Healthcare sector skill Council (HSSC).

Emergency scientific Technicians-simple (EMT-B) reply to emergency calls to provide green and instant care to the significantly unwell and injured and to transport the patient to a clinical facility.

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Rapid assessment of mrs. bailey’s breathing reveals irregular, gasping breaths. you correctly identify this pattern of breathing as?

Answers

You correctly identify this breathing pattern on agonal, Breathing patterns consist of tidal volume and respiratory rate in an individual. An average breathing pattern is 12 breaths per minute and 500 mL per breath. Eupnea is normal breathing at rest. There are types of altered breathing patterns that are symptoms of many diseases.

What is breathing pattern?

The normal adult, at rest, breathes comfortably 12 to 18 times per minute. Newborns, this value reaches 30 to 40 breaths per minute, that is, almost double that of an adult at rest and children can reach 25 to 30 breaths per minute.

With this information, we can conclude that Breathing rate is the number of breaths you take per minute.

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U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality. Cardiac Catheterization in Freestanding Clinics. 2005.

Answers

The Centers for Medicine & Medicaid Services (CMS ) requested that AHRQ commission an evidence report to assist in updating the CMS policy regarding cardiac catheterization in freestanding clinics.

Cardiac Catheterization in Freestanding Clinics:

The Coverage Issues Manual's (CIM) sections 35-45 have been found to be in error by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). According to the policy, cardiac catheterization may be covered at a freestanding clinic if the carrier determines that the procedure can be carried out there safely in every way, after consulting with the relevant Peer Review Organization. Beginning in the early 1990s, the Peer Examine Organizations—recently renamed Quality Improvement Organizations—ceased to review primary freestanding cardiac catheterization facilities. We are not aware of any new information that suggests there is a higher risk of adverse events at these freestanding clinics since the adoption of CIM 35-45. In order to assess the facts and make the necessary corrections, CMS is opening this policy.

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the nurse is teaching the mother of a toddler with celiac disease the specific foods allowed on the gluten-free diet. which is the most important information for the nurse to help the mother udnerstand

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The nurse is explaining the specific foods that fall within the gluten-free diet to the mother of a toddler who has celiac disease.

To prevent symptoms and damage to the small intestine, it is crucial for the nurse to advise the mother to feed her kid a gluten-free diet.
Gluten, a protein present in wheat, barley, and rye, causes celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue or gluten-sensitive enteropathy, which is an immunological response to consuming it. Eating gluten inflicts an immunological reaction on a person with celiac disease in their small intestine. Gluten can harm you in even little amounts. Steer clear of anything that contains wheat, rye, or barley. These grains are frequently used to make foods including crackers, bread, bagels, spaghetti, pizza, and malted breakfast cereals.

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Cynthia is turning 65 on July 5. Her Medicare Part A and Part B will be effective on July 1. Using her Initial Election Period (IEP), when can she submit an application for a Medicare Advantage or Prescription Drug plan?

Answers

During her Initial Election Period, which runs from three months before (April) to three months after (September) her Medicare Part A and Part B effective dates, Cynthia may enrol in a Medicare Advantage or Prescription Drug plan.

During Cynthia's Initial Election Period (IEP), which begins three months before the month of her Medicare Part A and Part B effective date (in this case, April) and concludes three months after that effective date (in this case, September), she may apply for a Medicare Advantage or Prescription Drug plan.

Thus, her application for a Medicare Advantage or Prescription Drug plan may be submitted at any time between April and September.

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The diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited. Group of answer choices True False

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The statement "diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited" is true.

Human beings are multicellular organisms that are heterotrophic in nature and thus, are not able to produce their own food. They depend on other organisms for their food. The diet of humans is diverse and flexible which includes various dishes (veg and non-veg). This diversity in the diet of humans includes only four limited organic molecules like proteins, carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids. Therefore, even after the diversity in the diet human beings eat quite a limited food type.

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To translate DRIs and DGAs into healthy food choices, an individual should follow recommendations from MyPlate, a service of the U.S. ______.

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To translate DRIs and DGAs into healthy food choices, an individual should follow recommendations from MyPlate, a service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).

The panels that create the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are separate from the ones that create the Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGA). The DRIs offer a set of numbers reflecting the nutritional requirements of populations that appear to be in good health. To assist parents in preparing wholesome, balanced meals for their children, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) developed the MyPlate food pyramid.

The interactive, user-friendly MyPlate website offers straightforward messaging like:

Pick diversity; the finest meals balance foods from many dietary categories.Avoiding serving excessive servingsMake the grains at least 50%. you provide Oatmeal, whole-wheat bread, and brown rice are examples of whole grains.Give your child's plate half of it with fruits and veggies.Serve low-fat or fat-free food (1 percent) milk and water as opposed to sugary beverages

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Select the correct answer. Consider this equation. 2(x-2)-5=√x+3-1 Use the graph to find the approximate solutions to the equation.

Answers

From the graph, approximate solutions of the equations is, x = 3 and x = 6.

What is the solution of the equation?

The solution of an equation makes that equation true.

The equation of can be simplified thus:

2(x-2)-5=√x+3-1

2x -9 =√x+2

4 x²-37x + 79 = 0

The graphical solution of the equations is approximately x = 3 and x = 6

In conclusion, the solution of an equation make the equation true.

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A malformation of the nails in which the outer surface is scooped out like the bowl of a spoon is known as?

Answers

Koilonychia is a malformation of the nails in which the outer surface is scooped out like the bowl of a spoon . Spoon nails are a sign of iron deficiency anemia or a liver condition known as hemochromatosis, in which your body absorbs too much iron from the food you eat. Koilonychia occurs in 5.4% of the patients with iron deficiency. It is thought to occur due to the upward deformation of lateral and distal portions of pliable iron deficient nail plates under mechanical pressure.

Koilonychia nails are treated by changing your diet or taking iron rich supplements such as Beans and lentils.

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which component of cultural competence is being demonstrated when the nurse motivates the immigrant to accept differences in the way a pregnant women is cared for in her current residence

Answers

The nurse is using cultural desire as a part of cultural competence. This component is related to motivation and commitment towards the care of an individual.

What is cultural competence?

Cultural competence helps the nurse to understand, communicate, and interact with people effectively. More specifically, it centers around:

Understanding the relationship between nurses and patientsAcquiring knowledge of various cultural practices and views of the worldDeveloping communication skills to promote and achieve interaction among culturesEnsuring a positive attitude is displayed toward differences and various cultures

Cultural competence expects more than just tolerating another’s cultures and practices. Instead, it aims to celebrate them through bridging gaps and personalizing care.

Practicing culturally competent care in nursing means taking a holistic approach that spans across all parts of the world. As a nurse, you should always work to respect the diverse cultures you come across when handling patients. It goes a long way to impact the capability and quality of your work.

What are the components of cultural competence?

Culturally competent care consists of five core building blocks.

Cultural knowledge involves searching for information about the culture and beliefs of your patients to better understand and interact with them.Cultural skills involves your ability to collect relevant data and process it to help engage a patient in meaningful cross-cultural interaction.Cultural encounter encourages nurses to venture out of the environment they are conversant with and try new cultures and places. They improve their competence by interacting with people from different backgrounds, cultures, and ethnicities.Cultural desire requires a strong motivation to learn more about other cultures. It is a strong force that involves the ability to be open to new people, to accept and understand cultures that are different from yours, and be willing to learn.Cultural awareness involves examining yourself, dropping prejudices that you have previously formed against foreign cultures, and developing the right attitude toward giving the best health service to all patients and clients.

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Which Condition Is Associated With The Excessive Concern Over Underdeveloped Muscles, Consumption Of (2024)

FAQs

Which eating disorder is characterized by excessive eating? ›

Binge-eating disorder is a serious condition. It always involves feeling like you're not able to stop eating. It also often involves eating much larger than usual amounts of food.

Which eating disorder is most likely to be associated with obesity? ›

Binge-eating disorder (BED) and night-eating syndrome (NES) are two forms of disordered eating associated with overweight and obesity. While these disorders also occur in non-obese persons, they seem to be associated with weight gain over time and higher risk of diabetes and other metabolic dysfunction.

Which condition is also referred to as the health food eating disorder? ›

Orthorexia nervosa meaning

Orthorexia stems from the Greek words for “right” and “appetite.” The term means “correct appetite.” Orthorexia nervosa refers to a disordered eating pattern where people obsessively focus on eating “pure” or “clean” foods to achieve optimal health.

Which of the following are symptoms related to both bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa? ›

Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are both eating disorders. They can have similar symptoms, such as distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. The difference is that they have different food-related behaviors.

What is condition of excessive eating known as? ›

Binge Eating Disorder (BED) has been discussed as a disordered eating behavior since the 1950's but was not officially recognized as its own diagnosis until the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published its 5th Edition (DSM-5) in 2013.

What medical term means excessive eating? ›

Polyphagia is a medical term describing excessive hunger or appetite. It also leads to a strong drive for overeating. People with polyphagia may not feel full after eating a large amount of food.

Which eating disorder is associated with excessive weight gain? ›

Unlike bulimia nervosa, periods of binge eating are not followed by purging, excessive exercise, or fasting. As a result, people with binge-eating disorder are often overweight or obese.

Which eating disorder is probably the most common? ›

As a result, people with binge-eating disorder often are overweight or obese. Binge-eating disorder is the most common eating disorder in the U.S.

What disorder is characterized by excessive dieting? ›

Anorexia nervosa.

This is characterized by weight loss often due to excessive dieting and exercise, sometimes to the point of starvation. People with anorexia feel they can never be thin enough and continue to see themselves as “fat” despite extreme weight loss. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID).

What other disorder is closely linked to eating disorders? ›

The following are co-occurring disorders that are commonly found with eating disorders:
  • Anxiety. ...
  • Depression. ...
  • Substance abuse/alcohol. ...
  • Self-injury. ...
  • Borderline personality disorder (BPD) ...
  • Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

Which disorder is most commonly comorbid with eating disorders? ›

The most common psychiatric disorders which co-occur with eating disorders include mood disorders (e.g., major depressive disorder), anxiety disorders (e.g., obsessive compulsive disorder, social anxiety disorder), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and trauma, substance use disorders, personality disorders (e.g. ...

What disorders are often seen along with eating disorders? ›

Eating disorders often co-occur with other psychiatric disorders most commonly, mood and anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and alcohol and substance use disorders.

Which of the following diseases is often associated with anorexia nervosa? ›

It's very harmful on the body, and can lead to serious, long-term health problems. These include: Low red blood cell count (anemia) Heart problems (arrhythmias, slow heart rate, heart failure, and mitral valve prolapse)

What is the most important personality trait found in cases of anorexia nervosa? ›

Individuals with anorexia nervosa are known to have high levels of harm avoidance, a personality trait that is characterized by worry, pessimistic thinking, doubt, and shyness.

Which eating disorder is characterized by self-starvation? ›

Anorexia Nervosa is a serious, potentially life-threatening eating disorder characterized by self-starvation and excessive weight loss.

Which disorder is characterized by eating excessive amounts of food? ›

Binge-eating disorder is a condition where people lose control of their eating and have reoccurring episodes of eating unusually large amounts of food. Unlike bulimia nervosa, periods of binge eating are not followed by purging, excessive exercise, or fasting.

What is the term of excessive eating? ›

verb. overeat or eat immodestly; make a pig of oneself. synonyms: binge, englut, engorge, glut, gorge, gormandise, gormandize, gourmandize, ingurgitate, overgorge, overindulge, pig out, satiate, scarf out, stuff. type of: eat. eat a meal; take a meal.

What disorder is characterized by compulsive eating? ›

Binge Eating Disorder (BED) is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating and the absence of inappropriate compensatory behaviors that are characterized by Bulimia Nervosa. Signs and symptoms of BED are: A sense of lack of control over eating while binging. Eating large amounts of food when not hungry.

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