Medicine College
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Answer 1
Patients with sickle cell disease benefit most from prompt hydration and pain control. Oxygenation should also be monitored. Finding and treating crisis triggers is critical to preventing recurrence of crises.
What causes pain in a patient with sickle cell disease?
Pain is the most common complication of her SCD and the leading reason for SCD patients to go to the emergency room or hospital. Sickle cells that travel through small blood vessels can get stuck and block blood flow throughout the body, causing pain.
What is care management for a patient with sickle cell disease?
Care strategies for SCD include: Acute Crisis Management. Complementary approaches, such as comfort measures, use of pain medications, and massage and distraction, are important during acute crises. Health care providers focus on hydration, infection prevention, and early detection of complications.
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Related Questions
a patient with terminal cancer is planning a trip to lourdes, france, the site of a revered roman catholic shrine. what is the significance of visiting this shrine?
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Casting blame on another person in the community patient with terminal cancer is planning a trip to Lourdes, France, the site of a revered roman catholic shrine.
Terminal cancer is incurable. this means no treatment will get rid of most cancers. but there are numerous remedies that may help make a person as comfy as feasible. This often includes minimizing the side results of each cancer and any medicines being used.
Humans with cancer often have pain, and often fear it'll worsen. cancer ache is considered to be a chronic ache because it generally lasts longer than an ache as a result of different issues. the ache could make you sense irritable, sleep poorly, lower your appetite, and reduce your attention, amongst many other things.
Lung and bronchial cancer reasons extra deaths inside the U.S. than every other kind of most cancers in each woman and men. even though survival prices have expanded through the years due to advanced treatments, the outlook continues to be bleak. The five-year survival charge is only 22%.
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the nurse is reviewing the morning laboratory test results for a client with cardiac problems. which finding is a priority to report to the healthcare provider?
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The heart patient is hospitalised for an upcoming heart catheterization. Your cardiologist will go over the procedure's specific dangers and potential advantages with you.
Every year, one million cardiac catheterizations are performed in the United States, yet the risks of a serious complication during a heart catheterization for diagnostic purposes are fewer than 1%. Complications from cardiac catheterization are uncommon.
Cardiac catheterization, also known as cardiac cath or coronary angiography, is an invasive imaging treatment that allows your healthcare professional to assess the function of your heart. A catheter (small tube) is inserted into a blood artery in your arm or groin then into your coronary arteries by your provider. Heart catheterization can be used to detect issues and additional treatments to correct them, sometimes all in the same session.
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the nurse is assessing a client who has been prescribed treatment with isoniazid. what assessment finding would most likely necessitate contacting the health care provider to recommend discontinuing treatment?
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If the nurse is assessing a client who has been prescribed treatment with isoniazid, then the assessment finding that the most likely to necessitate contacting the health care provider to recommend discontinuing treatment is jaundice.
What is the jaundice medical condition?
The jaundice medical condition refers to a health problem associated with the emergence of yellow color in the skin and or eyes, which is due to the appearance of life-treating diseases such as liver diseases or mid-level conditions.
The jaundice medical condition may be associated with the isoniazid drug because it may cause acute liver disease injuries.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the jaundice medical condition is associated with acute liver injuries and this condition has as one of its major symptoms to the yellow color in the skin and also in the eyes of the patient.
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a client with known coronary artery disease reports intermittent chest pain, usually on exertion. when teaching the client about nitroglycerin administration, which instruction should the nurse provide?
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A client with known coronary artery disease reports intermittent chest pain, usually on exertion. when teaching the client about nitroglycerin administration, headache, hypotension, dizziness, and flushing.
Pain inside the chest that comes and is going can also sign a hassle with the coronary heart, breathing system, or digestion. also, in a few people, it occurs all through panic assaults. there may be no manner to it should self-diagnose chest aches primarily based on signs on my own.
Someone needs to see a doctor in the event that they revel in repeat episodes of chest pain, irrespective of whether or not other symptoms are a gift. Recurrent bouts of chest aches may additionally indicate an underlying health issue, together with a problem with the heart or lungs.
Occasionally chest pain is simply chest pain. from time to time it is only muscle stress, heartburn, or bronchitis. greater frequently than now not there are benign reasons, however, you have to be evaluated with the aid of a healthcare expert in case you're worried. Chest pain can signal a serious condition, coronary heart-associated, or in any other case.
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when armboards are used on the operating room table for a patient in the supine position, they must be .
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In supine position, the head is rested on a foam pillow, keeping neck in a neutral position. The patient's arms are tucked at their side or abducted to less than 90 degrees on padded arm boards.
When are supine positions used?
The supine position is the common position used in the operating room. Supine positions that are used for the following procedures: intracranial, cardiac, abdominal, endovascular, laparoscopic, ENT, neck and face.
The safety strap is placed over the mid to upper thighs approximately 2 inches above the knees and is not placed over a bony prominence. After the strap is secured, one should be able to run your hand under the strap.
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marcus lifts weights every day. he takes nutritional supplements and steroids, but he never seems satisfied with his muscular progress. marcus is displaying signs of what disorder?
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Marcus is displaying signs of muscle dysmorphia.
What is muscle dysmorphia?
Muscle dysmorphia is a psychological disorder that makes a person addicted to building muscles and doing bodybuilding exercises. Even though the body is formed and the muscles are enlarged, people with muscle dysmorphic disorder will continue to try to make their bodies more muscular and muscular.
The following are the characteristics of people with muscle dysmorphic disorder.
All-out workout to increase muscle mass.Panic and stress if you can't or don't have time to exercise.Continue to exercise even if you are sick or injured.Eating disorders, usually consuming excessive amounts of proteinSteroids addiction.Too often look in the mirror and check the shape of the body.Comparing his body with other bodybuilders.Not confident with body shape and self-image.
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an alert and oriented patient with a history of penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. what is the priority action by the nurse?
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Determine the type of reaction/allergy the patient experiences to the penicillin. Penicillin allergy is an aberrant immune system reaction to the medication penicillin.
Penicillin is used to treat a variety of bacterial illnesses. Hives, redness, and itching are common allergy indications and symptoms of penicillin allergy. Anaphylaxis, a potentially fatal illness affecting several body systems, is one of the most severe reactions. Anaphylaxis is a rare, sometimes fatal allergic reaction that involves broad systemic malfunction.
Penicillin may cause side effects & allergy similar to other drugs that are not an adverse reaction to the antibiotic. Common adverse effects of penicillin may include minor vomiting or dysentery, headaches, or vagin*l itching.
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for the patient who sustained head trauma, which type of seizure might he or she experience while on a ventilator and receiving sedation medications in the intensive care unit?
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For the patient who sustained head trauma, which type of seizure might he or she experience while on a ventilator and receiving sedation medications in the intensive care unit Phenytoin.
A head harm is any trauma to the scalp, skull, or brain. Head damage can be both closed or open (penetrating). A closed head harm way you acquired a difficult blow to the pinnacle from putting an item, however the item did now not spoil the skull.
Head injuries are one of the most commonplace reasons of incapacity and dying in adults. The damage may be as slight as a bump, bruise (contusion), or cut on the pinnacle, or may be slight to intense in nature because of a concussion, deep reduce or open wound, fractured cranium bone(s), or from internal bleeding and damage to the brain.
Even after a minor head injury, brain feature can be briefly impaired and that is from time to time known as concussion. this will lead to difficulties along with headaches, dizziness, fatigue, despair, irritability and reminiscence issues.
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an infant has a continuous-machine type of murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole. the infant has a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. these clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
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Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) causes the myocardium to enlarge consistent with a congenital heart defect.
What is a congenital heart defect?
An hereditary cardiac illness called hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy causes the myocardium to enlarge.
Since there is a continual pressure gradient driving blood from the aorta into the pulmonary artery during both systole and diastole, a patent ductus arteriosus results in a continuous murmur.
Therefore, a congenital heart, a patent ductus arteriosus results in a continuous murmur.
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the nurse is administering a dose of oral digoxin at 0800 on monday. the nurse will anticipate the effects of the digoxin dose to last until which time?
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The nurse anticipates that the effects of the digoxin dosage will persist until 0800 on Thursday.
The nurse expects the digoxin dosage to last for between 8 hours on Thursday and 8 hours on Friday (3 to 4 days following administration).
Digoxin is used to treat heart failure, usually in conjunction with other medications. Additionally, Digoxin is used to treat a number of different types of irregular heartbeat (such as chronic atrial fibrillation). Treating heart failure may prolong the life of your heart and keep you able to walk and exercise. Treating an irregular heartbeat may also increase your ability to exercise. The medication class known as cardiac glycosides includes digoxin. It works by affecting certain minerals (sodium and potassium) in heart cells. The heart is less stressed as a result and is better equipped to maintain a regular, steady heartbeat.
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A nurse has registered to vote, voted in primary and regular elections, and participated in public forums related to budget reductions that could result in the reduction of the numbers of school nurses. The nurse is known as a.
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Answer:
Nurse citizen
Explanation:
If u look up contempt 10 in quizlet you will be able to find some flashcards that might be able to help you :)
the nurse in the immunization clinic should place emphasis on educating and reaching which groups about the disease preventing effects of immunizations? (select all that apply.)
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Recommendations for Pediatric Health Prevention Care, also referred to as the… and evaluations Suggested during each well-child checkup from…Reporting is necessary in addition to preventive measures.
Non-age-specific immunizations, medicine administration Codes… A patient who is six months old gifts to the workplace as part of her routine.The adaptive immune system memorises the specifics of the antigen when it encounters a new threat, preventing us from contracting the illness again.Immune memory refers to the body’s capacity to produce antibodies against many infections.It is possible to create a vaccine against a virus by employing either an active but weakened or attenuated virus or by using certain inactive virus components. Virus particles and attenuated entire viruses can both simulate the presence of an active virus in order to elicit an immune response, even though no real dangers are present.The body gets exposed to the antigen necessary to develop antibodies specific to the disease by receiving a vaccine.
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he nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin for induction of labor and notes a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (fhr) pattern on the fetal monitor. on the basis of this finding, the nurse should take which action first?
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The nurse should immediately stop the oxytocin infusion.
Oxytocin has to be administered as an intravenous (i.v.) drip infusion or, ideally, through a variable-pace infusion pump. For drip infusion, it's miles encouraged that 5 IU (8.3 micrograms) of Oxytocin be delivered to 500 ml of a physiological electrolyte answer (inclusive of sodium chloride 0.9 %).
The average fetal heart charge is between one hundred ten and one hundred sixty beats in step per minute. it is able to vary through five to 25 beats according to the minute. The fetal coronary heart charge might also change as your infant responds to conditions for your uterus. An abnormal fetal heart fee may also suggest that your child isn't always getting sufficient oxygen or that there are different troubles.
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impaired swallowing indicates the need for a: group of answer choices mechanically altered diet. low-sodium diet. fat-restricted diet. low-fiber diet.
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Impaired swallowing indicates the need for a mechanically altered diet.
Dysphagia, or impaired swallowing, is a condition that makes it difficult to consume food or liquids without choking.
The throat's muscles and nerves are weakened as a result of this disorder.
Conversely, a mechanically changed diet is a unique form of food created for people with dysphagia or any other type of swallowing issue. This diet is made by adjusting the food's consistency.
For instance, swallowing aids such soft foods, purred foods, ground meat, etc.
Therefore, foods that are easy to swallow are included in mechanically changed diets.
Impaired swallowing may be a short-term or long-term problem, and it may be fatal. Dysphagia can affect people of any age, but older folks are more likely to develop it.
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the power relationship between physicians and patients is immediately evident when the patient enters the doctor's office because
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Patients have to wait until a "gatekeeper" lets them in before they can see the doctor in the "back zone" of the office.
What do the physicians do?
Doctors and surgeons work with both preserving health and identifying and treating diseases and wounds. Doctors perform physical examinations, ask about medical history, and order, conduct out, and review diagnostic testing. They frequently provide patients with guidance on nutrition, hygiene, and preventative healthcare.
Why is a physicianscalled a doctor?
Because the term "physic" traditionally covered the both practice of medicine and natural science, medical professionals are referred to as physicians. Physics as it related to healing was thrown out in favor of medicine as scientific sciences advanced.
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the nurse is caring for a client at risk for the development of cognitive impairment related to a spinal cord injury. when creating the plan of care for this client, what interventions should the nurse include to avoid this development? select all that apply.
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The nurse is caring for a client at risk for the development of cognitive impairment related to a spinal cord injury. when creating the plan of care for this client, interventions such as "discuss current events or the client's occupation, hobbies, or interests", "orient the client to the surroundings and environment every 1 to 2 hours" and "Have the client assist in self-care as much as possible" should be included by the nurse the development. Making options B, C, and D the right answers.
How does a spinal cord injury shape cognitive ability?
Cognitive impairment can create problems that affect clients' judgment, ability to remember things and events, and solving problems.
The spinal cord might not directly affect cognition , but due to its role in the nervous system, an injury to it can cause impairment.
A client's cognitive impairment after a spinal injury might include impaired memory, losing interest in things, and forgetting recent events.
In summary, the client should be educated on his/her surroundings, updated on current events, and educated to always care for himself/herself are the best ways to avoid cognitive impairment related to a spinal cord injury.
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The complete part of the question is:
The nurse is caring for a client at risk for the development of cognitive impairment related to a spinal cord injury. When creating the plan of care for this client, what interventions should the nurse include to avoid this development? Select all that apply.
A. If the client begins to have hallucinations, agree with the client to prevent agitation.
B. Discuss current events or the client's occupation, hobbies, or interests.
C. Orient the client to the surroundings and environment every 1 to 2 hours.
D. Have the client assist in self-care as much as possible.
E. Keep the client's room quiet with the shades or curtains drawn.
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a client in need of long-term anti-inflammatory medication has been tried on nsaid and nsaid combination therapy with anti-ulcer medications, but continues to have recurring gi ulcerations. the treating physician discusses the possibility of switching to a different nsaid known as celecoxib (celebrex), a cyclooxygenase-2 (cox-2) inhibitor. what is the health care practitioner aware of when educating the client about the rationale for switching medications?
Answers
The COX-2 inhibitors have the potential to cause fewer gastric problems and pose less risk of GI bleeding.
Do COX-2 inhibitors cause GI bleeding?
Patients taking warfarin concomitantly with selective COX-2 inhibitors have an increased risk of hospitalization for upper GI hemorrhage. The risk appears similar to that of patients simultaneously taking warfarin and nonselective NSAIDs.
What is the advantage of cyclooxygenase 2 COX-2 inhibitors over other NSAIDs?
COX-2 selective inhibitors were developed to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal ulceration caused by non-selective NSAIDs. By selectively inhibiting COX-2 they reduced the risk of upper gastrointestinal bleeding associated with other NSAIDs.
Is Celebrex a COX-1 or COX-2 inhibitor?
Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a COX-2 enzyme inhibitor and has emerged as a preferred therapeutic agent for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis as compared to other NSAIDs.
Thus, COX-2 inhibitors are used to reduce gastric problems and pose less risk of GI bleeding.
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the nurse cares for a client of a different cultural background. what is the best way for the nurse to provide culturally competent care to the client?
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The nurse should plan and implement care that would be sensitive to the client from a different cultural background.
The delivery of culturally competent nursing care means that care is planned and delivered in a manner that is sensitive to the needs of individuals, families, and groups from different backgrounds. cultural diversity in society. To provide culturally appropriate care, nurses do not need to ask clients to explain why they believe.
Assuring clients that their cultural preferences will be respected is the act of dismissing and assuming the behavior of others rather than actively creating culturally competent interventions in the care plan. squirrel. Referring customers to other customers assumes that customers from similar cultural backgrounds will share interests and desire to interact with each other. Making such an assumption is not a culturally authoritative approach.
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levothyroxine (synthroid) is prescribed for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. upon review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin (coumadin). which modification to the plan of care should the nurse review with the client's health care provider?
Answers
Levothyroxine increases the effects of warfarin, hence the dosage of sodium warfarin should be reduced (NCLEX).
Levothyroxine: What Is It?
A medication called levothyroxine is used to address an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism).The thyroid gland produces thyroid hormones, which help control development and energy levels. Levothyroxine is used to replace the missing thyroid hormone thyroxine. Levothyroxine can only be purchased with a prescription.
What drawbacks do levothyroxine users experience?
Levothyroxine frequently causes diarrhea, a rapid heartbeat, and heat sensitivity. Levothyroxine side effects may also be more severe. Talk with your health professional as soon as possible if you encounter side effects including tremors or mood swings.
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a client with a history of smoking, daily alcohol consumption, and ingestion of a minimum of ten antacids (tums) per day is started on a triple therapy ulcer regime for a positive helicobacter pylori infection. what instructions should be given to the client?
Answers
A client who has been found to have Helicobacter pylori. To prevent rebound hypersecretion, take the drug on a regular schedule and avoid rapid cessation. The client should receive these instructions.
One of the most prevalent chronic inflammatory diseases is H. pylori infection. The majority of H. pylori infection patients exhibit symptoms of both acute and chronic gastritis. Stomach cancer or a rare form of stomach lymphoma can occasionally result from H pylori.
Not spicy food, but Helicobacter pylori, is the cause of stomach ulcers. Instead of spicy meals and stress, which doctors considered the main causes of peptic ulcers at the time, Marshall and Warren were able to demonstrate that the bacteria Helicobacter pylori was the primary cause of peptic ulcers.
To prevent rebound hypersecretion, the client should be instructed to take the drug regularly and to avoid rapid discontinuation.
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Your question is incomplete. Please find the complete question below.
A client with a history of smoking, daily alcohol consumption, and ingestion of a minimum of ten antacids (Tums) per day is started on a triple therapy ulcer regime for a positive Helicobacter pylori infection. What instructions should be given to the client?
a. Take the medication regularly, and avoid abrupt withdrawal to prevent rebound hypersecretion.
b. Take Nexium on a full stomach.
c. Decrease your smoking to one pack per day.
d. Take Tums in conjunction with other medications to enhance acid protection and promote healing.
a patient is experiencing a severe panic attack. which nursing intervention would meet this client's immediate need?
Answers
A patient is experiencing a severe panic attack. To meet the client’s immediate need, the nurse should: stay with the client and offer the reassurance of security and safety.
What is a severe panic attack?
A severe panic attack is the feeling of sudden, intense fear and anxiety. This panic episode can be triggered even if there is no real danger or apparent cause. It can lead to physical symptoms such as shaking, disoriented feeling, rapid and irregular heartbeats, nausea, breathlessness, dry mouth, and heavy sweating. If a nurse is taking care of this type of client, they need to offer the reassurance of security and safety to calm the client.
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You read an article about vegetables grown in the United States. According
to the article's author, Americans need to take dietary supplements
because the vegetables lack essential nutrients. This claim is an example
of a(an)
A . Scare tactic
B. Scientific fact .
C. Anecdote
D. Evidence-based report
Answers
The correct option is (A). Scare tactic.
What are scare tactics?
Scare tactics emphasize the worst dangers of drug use to create fear and anxiety in the hopes that fear alone will prevent or stop risky behaviors. Scare tactics seem intuitive to us as adults. After all, we intentionally avoid situations that frighten us or make us worry that we'll be harmed.
Moreover, it is a strategy using fear to influence the public's reaction; coercing a favorable response by preying upon the audience's fears. Scare tactics are not direct threats, but are intimidated conclusions.
Therefore, some research suggests that fear-based messaging can motivate certain kinds of low-stakes behavior changes, like seeing the dentist more regularly. But when it comes to preventing teens from using alcohol and other drugs, the evidence is clear: Scare tactics don't work.
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which is not a compensatory behavior for someone with bulimia? a.use of diuretics b.excessive exercise c.liquid-only diet d.forced vomiting
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Which is not a compensatory behavior for someone with bulimia is... C. A liquid-only diet
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder in which the sufferer has the desire to eat large amounts of food at once. During these episodes of eating, the person with bulimia has no control over stopping them. Then, after consuming the food, the sufferer will feel embarrassed, so he wants to do everything he can to get rid of the food he had consumed earlier.
Bulimia can cause serious complications and can even be a danger. The frequent frequency of vomiting can damage teeth due to stomach acid and trigger swelling of the salivary glands. It can also cause a sore throat and bad breath.
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a nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin (coumadin). what assessment finding by the nurse indicates a possible barrier to self-management?
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A nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin (coumadin) .Then, the nurse should had to indicate strict vegetarian for self- management.
Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors. Foods high in vitamin K thus interfere with its action and need to be eaten in moderate, consistent amounts. A vegetarian may have trouble maintaining this diet. The nurse should explore this possibility with the client.
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a client receiving penicillin therapy reports mouth irritation and a sore throat to the nurse. inspection reveals a red, swollen tongue with ulcerations. the nurse suspects a fungal superinfection and prioritizes which nursing diagnosis as most appropriate for this client?
Answers
We get up to five doses of the suspect penicillin, each increasing in strength until the desired dose is reached.
What is penicillin allergy?
Doctor will determine that you are not allergic to that type of penicillin if take the therapeutic dose without experiencing any side effects. We can take the medication exactly as directed
Doctor may advise a graded challenge with a kind of penicillin or cephalosporin that is less likely — because of known chemical features to result in an allergic reaction if you are allergic to one type of penicillin.
Doctor would then be able to choose an antibiotic that is safe to take.
Therefore, We get up to five doses of the suspect penicillin, each increasing in strength until the desired dose is reached.
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The world health organization has said that _______________ is single greatest biggest health threat facing humanity.
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The world health organization has said that climate change is single greatest biggest health threat facing humanity.
The WHO is a specialized employer of the United countries responsible for worldwide public fitness. The WHO constitution states its most important goal as the attainment with the aid of all peoples of the highest possible level of fitness.
WHO works international to sell health, hold the sector secure, and serve the vulnerable. Our goal is to make certain that a thousand million more human beings have conventional fitness insurance, to shield one billion extra people from fitness emergencies, and provide a similarly billion people with higher fitness and nicely-being.
The WHO sets requirements for disease manage, fitness care, and medicines; conducts schooling and studies programs; and publishes scientific papers and reports. A major aim is to enhance get right of entry to to fitness care for people in growing nations and in groups who do now not get appropriate fitness care.
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What is the blood type of individuals who cannot add the terminal sugar to the h substance?.
Answers
Blood Type O (hom*ozygous OO)
Person who are hom*ozygous OO are cannot attach terminal sugars to the H substance and only express the H antigen
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which response would be nurse report immedietly if it occured in association with nasotracheal suctioning
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Answer: After the oxygen delivery device has been reapplied on completion of the procedure, the patient's pulse oximetry falls to 88%.
Explanation:
Rationale: This decline in peripheral blood oxygen saturation must be reported. It represents a decline in the patient's condition following a procedure that should have improved his or her SpO2 reading. Discomfort need not be reported. Symptoms of coughing and sore throat do not require immediate reporting. This change in heart rate is anticipated with the procedure. Taken by itself, it does not require reporting.
while teaching about advance care planning, which fact is important for the nurse to share with a client who has been diagnosed with a terminal illness?
Answers
Living wills provide specific instructions related to the client's personal property upon death has been diagnosed with a terminal illness.
What do you mean by diagnosed?
the procedure of determining a diagnosis, disease, or injury based on its indications and symptoms. To aid in the diagnosis, testing like blood work, imaging tests, and biopsy may be done in addition to a physical examination and health history. It is necessary to formulate and test hypotheses in order to diagnose the issue.
How is a patient diagnosed?
A medical practitioner will ask you about your background of symptoms in order to get a diagnosis. A doctor may occasionally order a few physical tests to rule out potential physical illnesses, but we are unable to assess mental health on its own through blood work or other biometric data.
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Describe EPSDT and state its purpose. Choose three EPSDT requirements and describe why they are mandated. What consequences will a state face for failure to provide EPSDT services to Medicaid recipients?
Answers
The answers include the following:
EPSDT is referred to as child health benefit and it helps the physical, mental and developmental health needs of children.The requirements for the program are Comprehensive health and developmental history, unclothed physical exam and immunizations and they are mandated so as to know the health condition of the child.The consequences a state will face for failure to provide EPSDT services to Medicaid recipients high mortality rate due to high cost of access to healthcare.
What is Insurance?
This is referred to as a form of protection against theft or loss and consists of various types.
EPSDT is referred to as child health benefit under medicaid and it helps the overall health needs of children.
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